Current Affairs Quiz 28 February 2025
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Current Affairs Quiz 28 February 2025 For UPSC Exam
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- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
With reference to the changing U.S. policy on the Russia-Ukraine war, consider the following statements:
- The shift in U.S. policy under the new administration is characterized by a willingness to engage in peace talks with Russia.
- The U.S. has historically maintained a neutral stance in the Russia-Ukraine conflict, avoiding direct involvement.
- NATO’s expansion has been a contentious issue in the Russia-Ukraine conflict, with differing perspectives on its role in escalating tensions.
- Saudi Arabia has emerged as a mediator due to its strong ties with both Russia and Western powers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
CorrectAnswer: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The latest U.S. approach includes diplomatic engagement with Russia, marking a shift from earlier policies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The U.S. has been actively involved in the conflict, providing military and financial aid to Ukraine.
- Statement 3 is correct: NATO’s expansion has been cited as one of the causes of the conflict, with Russia opposing Ukraine’s potential NATO membership.
- Statement 4 is correct: Saudi Arabia’s balanced diplomatic position makes it a suitable venue for mediation efforts.
IncorrectAnswer: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The latest U.S. approach includes diplomatic engagement with Russia, marking a shift from earlier policies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The U.S. has been actively involved in the conflict, providing military and financial aid to Ukraine.
- Statement 3 is correct: NATO’s expansion has been cited as one of the causes of the conflict, with Russia opposing Ukraine’s potential NATO membership.
- Statement 4 is correct: Saudi Arabia’s balanced diplomatic position makes it a suitable venue for mediation efforts.
- Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Which of the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India is/are correct?
- GST is a destination-based tax levied at the point of consumption.
- GST replaced both direct and indirect taxes in India.
- The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
CorrectAnswer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: GST is a destination-based tax, meaning it is collected in the state where the goods/services are consumed, not where they are produced.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: GST replaced many indirect taxes (e.g., excise duty, service tax, VAT) but did not replace direct taxes like income tax.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the Prime Minister.
IncorrectAnswer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: GST is a destination-based tax, meaning it is collected in the state where the goods/services are consumed, not where they are produced.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: GST replaced many indirect taxes (e.g., excise duty, service tax, VAT) but did not replace direct taxes like income tax.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the Prime Minister.
- Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Which of the following statements regarding the Olive Ridley turtle is/are correct?
- Olive Ridley turtles are the smallest sea turtles in the world.
- They are known for their mass nesting phenomenon, called Arribada.
- They are classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
CorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Olive Ridley turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea) are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtle species.
- Statement 2 is correct: They are famous for their mass nesting behavior (Arribada), where thousands of females come ashore to lay eggs simultaneously.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Olive Ridley turtles are classified as Vulnerable (not Endangered) on the IUCN Red List.
IncorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Olive Ridley turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea) are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtle species.
- Statement 2 is correct: They are famous for their mass nesting behavior (Arribada), where thousands of females come ashore to lay eggs simultaneously.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Olive Ridley turtles are classified as Vulnerable (not Endangered) on the IUCN Red List.
- Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Which constitutional provision governs the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States in India?
CorrectAnswer: (c) Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Finance Commission, which is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre (Union Government) and the States. The Finance Commission is constituted every five years (or earlier if needed) to make recommendations on the sharing of financial resources, including tax proceeds, as well as grants-in-aid to the States. This provision ensures a systematic and equitable allocation of funds in India’s federal structure.
The other options are incorrect because:
- Article 111 deals with the procedure for passing a Money Bill in Parliament.
- Article 275 pertains to grants from the Union to certain States, but it does not govern the overall distribution of tax revenues.
- Article 110 defines what constitutes a Money Bill, but it does not address the Centre-State distribution of tax revenues.
IncorrectAnswer: (c) Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Finance Commission, which is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre (Union Government) and the States. The Finance Commission is constituted every five years (or earlier if needed) to make recommendations on the sharing of financial resources, including tax proceeds, as well as grants-in-aid to the States. This provision ensures a systematic and equitable allocation of funds in India’s federal structure.
The other options are incorrect because:
- Article 111 deals with the procedure for passing a Money Bill in Parliament.
- Article 275 pertains to grants from the Union to certain States, but it does not govern the overall distribution of tax revenues.
- Article 110 defines what constitutes a Money Bill, but it does not address the Centre-State distribution of tax revenues.
- Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the use of African giant pouched rats for TB detection, consider the following statements:
- These rats have been successfully used for TB diagnosis in countries like Tanzania and Mozambique.
- The rats can diagnose TB samples at a much faster rate compared to conventional microscopy.
- The National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) has officially approved the use of these rats in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAnswer:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: African giant pouched rats have been trained and successfully used for TB detection in countries like Tanzania, Mozambique, and Ethiopia.
- Statement 2 is correct: These rats can test 100 samples in 20 minutes, significantly faster than conventional microscopy, which takes 3-4 days.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) has not yet approved the use of these rats in India. However, some states are open to pilot projects.
IncorrectAnswer:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: African giant pouched rats have been trained and successfully used for TB detection in countries like Tanzania, Mozambique, and Ethiopia.
- Statement 2 is correct: These rats can test 100 samples in 20 minutes, significantly faster than conventional microscopy, which takes 3-4 days.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) has not yet approved the use of these rats in India. However, some states are open to pilot projects.
