Static Quiz 31 January 2025 (Indian History)
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Static Quiz 31 January 2025 (Indian History) For Exam
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- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Which one of the following statements is not correct about Freedom?
CorrectQ1.c
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is not correct: Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India the power to impose President’s Rule on a state on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. It is not a discretionary power of the President.
• Statement 2 is correct: In a parliamentary system, the President appoints the Prime Minister based on the leader who commands the majority in the Lok Sabha. However, if no clear majority emerges after an election, the President must exercise discretion to determine which leader is most likely to secure and maintain support in the Lok Sabha.
• Statement 3 is correct: The President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice, exercising discretion in the process. Although the Council can resend the same advice, the President’s request for reconsideration carries significant weight.
• Statement 4 is correct: If the Lok Sabha is to be dissolved before the full term of five years, then a formal order by the President to this effect is essential. In general, the President’s power to dissolve the Lok Sabha is to be exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, if the Council of Ministers has lost majority in the Lok Sabha, then it becomes a situational discretion of the President of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha.IncorrectQ1.c
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is not correct: Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India the power to impose President’s Rule on a state on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. It is not a discretionary power of the President.
• Statement 2 is correct: In a parliamentary system, the President appoints the Prime Minister based on the leader who commands the majority in the Lok Sabha. However, if no clear majority emerges after an election, the President must exercise discretion to determine which leader is most likely to secure and maintain support in the Lok Sabha.
• Statement 3 is correct: The President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice, exercising discretion in the process. Although the Council can resend the same advice, the President’s request for reconsideration carries significant weight.
• Statement 4 is correct: If the Lok Sabha is to be dissolved before the full term of five years, then a formal order by the President to this effect is essential. In general, the President’s power to dissolve the Lok Sabha is to be exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, if the Council of Ministers has lost majority in the Lok Sabha, then it becomes a situational discretion of the President of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha. - Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to the Right to Information Act, consider the following statements:
1. All persons seeking information from a Central Government Public Authority are required to pay a minimum nominal fee.
2. There is no prescribed format of application for seeking information.
3. Every information to an applicant shall be supplied within 30 days from the receipt of the application.
4. No appeal can be made after the receipt of the information.
How many of the above statements are correct?CorrectQ2.a
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is not correct: A person who desires to seek information from a Central Government Public Authority must send, along with the application, a demand draft, a banker’s cheque, or an Indian Postal Order of ₹10, payable to the Accounts Officer of the public authority as a fee. Payment can also be made in cash against a proper receipt. However, the RTI Fee and mode of payment may vary as per Sections 27 and 28 of the RTI Act, 2005. Applicants from Below Poverty Line (BPL) categories are exempted but must provide proof of BPL status.
• Statement 2 is correct: There is no prescribed format for seeking information under RTI. The application can be made on plain paper and should include the applicant’s name and complete postal address.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Normally, information must be supplied within 30 days of receiving the application. If the information concerns the life or liberty of a person, it must be provided within 48 hours. If the application is sent via the Assistant Public Information Officer or to an incorrect public authority, an additional five days are added to the response time.
• Statement 4 is not correct: If an applicant does not receive information within the prescribed time or is dissatisfied with the response, they may appeal to the First Appellate Authority within 30 days. If the First Appellate Authority fails to provide a decision within the stipulated time, or if the applicant is unsatisfied, a Second Appeal can be filed with the Central Information Commission within 90 days.IncorrectQ2.a
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is not correct: A person who desires to seek information from a Central Government Public Authority must send, along with the application, a demand draft, a banker’s cheque, or an Indian Postal Order of ₹10, payable to the Accounts Officer of the public authority as a fee. Payment can also be made in cash against a proper receipt. However, the RTI Fee and mode of payment may vary as per Sections 27 and 28 of the RTI Act, 2005. Applicants from Below Poverty Line (BPL) categories are exempted but must provide proof of BPL status.
• Statement 2 is correct: There is no prescribed format for seeking information under RTI. The application can be made on plain paper and should include the applicant’s name and complete postal address.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Normally, information must be supplied within 30 days of receiving the application. If the information concerns the life or liberty of a person, it must be provided within 48 hours. If the application is sent via the Assistant Public Information Officer or to an incorrect public authority, an additional five days are added to the response time.
• Statement 4 is not correct: If an applicant does not receive information within the prescribed time or is dissatisfied with the response, they may appeal to the First Appellate Authority within 30 days. If the First Appellate Authority fails to provide a decision within the stipulated time, or if the applicant is unsatisfied, a Second Appeal can be filed with the Central Information Commission within 90 days. - Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Writs issued by the court:
1. A mandamus is issued to an office holder who is not doing his legal duty.
2. In Quo Warranto, the court orders a lower court to transfer a matter to a higher court.
3. Certiorari is issued when a person holds an office he is not entitled to.
Which of the statements given above are correct?CorrectQ3.c
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution provides a strong framework of Fundamental Rights. However, these rights must be enforceable. The Right to Constitutional Remedies ensures this by allowing courts to issue writs to protect these rights.
• Habeas Corpus: The court can order that an arrested person be presented before it. If the arrest is unlawful, the person must be set free.
• Mandamus: Issued when an officeholder is not fulfilling their legal duty, infringing on an individual’s rights. (Statement 1 is correct.)
• Prohibition: Issued by a higher court (Supreme Court/High Court) to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
• Quo Warranto: Prevents unauthorized individuals from holding a public office. (Statement 2 is incorrect.)
• Certiorari: Directs a lower court or authority to transfer a case to a higher court. (Statement 3 is incorrect.)IncorrectQ3.c
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution provides a strong framework of Fundamental Rights. However, these rights must be enforceable. The Right to Constitutional Remedies ensures this by allowing courts to issue writs to protect these rights.
• Habeas Corpus: The court can order that an arrested person be presented before it. If the arrest is unlawful, the person must be set free.
• Mandamus: Issued when an officeholder is not fulfilling their legal duty, infringing on an individual’s rights. (Statement 1 is correct.)
• Prohibition: Issued by a higher court (Supreme Court/High Court) to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
• Quo Warranto: Prevents unauthorized individuals from holding a public office. (Statement 2 is incorrect.)
• Certiorari: Directs a lower court or authority to transfer a case to a higher court. (Statement 3 is incorrect.) - Question 4 of 5
4. Question
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. Creation of the All-India Judicial Service does not require amendment of Constitution under Article 368.
2. Motions for the introduction of the Constitutional Amendment Bills are decided by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the House “present and voting”.
3. President must give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill seeking the extent of the executive power of the Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?CorrectQ4.d
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Bills passed by a simple majority, such as the creation of the All-India Judicial Service (Article 312), are not Constitution Amendment Bills under Article 368 and do not require state ratification.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament and require a special majority for passage (majority of total membership + two-thirds of members present and voting).
• Statement 3 is correct: The President must give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill that extends Union executive power. Under Article 368, once both Houses pass a Constitution Amendment Bill, the President has no discretion to withhold assent or return it for reconsideration.IncorrectQ4.d
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Bills passed by a simple majority, such as the creation of the All-India Judicial Service (Article 312), are not Constitution Amendment Bills under Article 368 and do not require state ratification.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament and require a special majority for passage (majority of total membership + two-thirds of members present and voting).
• Statement 3 is correct: The President must give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill that extends Union executive power. Under Article 368, once both Houses pass a Constitution Amendment Bill, the President has no discretion to withhold assent or return it for reconsideration. - Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following pairs with respect to the recent Constitutional amendments and their provisions:
Constitutional Amendments Provisions
1. 104th CAA Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
2. 105th CAA Reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
3. 106th CAA Reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislatures for womenHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
CorrectQ5.a
Explanation:
• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The 104th Constitutional Amendment extended SC/ST reservations in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies by 10 years but abolished Anglo-Indian reservations. The 102nd Amendment granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The 105th Amendment restored the states’ authority to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs). The 103rd Amendment provided a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The 106th Constitutional Amendment reserved one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women, marking a historic legislative step.IncorrectQ5.a
Explanation:
• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The 104th Constitutional Amendment extended SC/ST reservations in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies by 10 years but abolished Anglo-Indian reservations. The 102nd Amendment granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The 105th Amendment restored the states’ authority to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs). The 103rd Amendment provided a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The 106th Constitutional Amendment reserved one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women, marking a historic legislative step.
