Static Quiz 26 July 2024
Quiz-summary
0 of 5 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Information
Static Quiz 26 July 2024 for UPSC Prelims
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 5 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Which of the following functions and powers of Prime Minister are incorrect?
1. The Prime Minister of India is the Head of the Government of India.
2. The Prime Minister has the authority to assign portfolios to the Ministers.
3. The Prime Minister is the chairman of the cabinet and presides the meetings of the Cabinet.CorrectAns;- d) None of the above
Explanation;-
• As question asked to choose incorrect statement about powers and functions of PM, but all the statements are correct about PM.
About Power and Functions of PM
• Prime Minister of India serves the country by following various functions. He performs his functions taking responsibilities as:
a. The leader of Country: The Prime Minister of India is the Head of the Government of India.
b. Portfolio allocation: The Prime Minister has the authority to assign portfolios to the Ministers.
c. Chairman of the Cabinet: The Prime Minister is the chairman of the cabinet and presides the meetings of the Cabinet. He can impose his decision if there is a crucial opinion difference among the members.
d. Official Representative of the country: Prime minister represents the country for high-level international meetings
e. The link between the President and the Cabinet: The Prime Minister acts as the link between President and cabinet. He communicates all decisions of the Cabinet to the President which is related to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
f. Head: The Prime Minister is the head of Nuclear Command Authority, NITI Aayog, Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, Department of Atomic Energy, Department of Space and Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
g. Chief Advisor: He acts as the chief advisor to the PresidentIncorrectAns;- d) None of the above
Explanation;-
• As question asked to choose incorrect statement about powers and functions of PM, but all the statements are correct about PM.
About Power and Functions of PM
• Prime Minister of India serves the country by following various functions. He performs his functions taking responsibilities as:
a. The leader of Country: The Prime Minister of India is the Head of the Government of India.
b. Portfolio allocation: The Prime Minister has the authority to assign portfolios to the Ministers.
c. Chairman of the Cabinet: The Prime Minister is the chairman of the cabinet and presides the meetings of the Cabinet. He can impose his decision if there is a crucial opinion difference among the members.
d. Official Representative of the country: Prime minister represents the country for high-level international meetings
e. The link between the President and the Cabinet: The Prime Minister acts as the link between President and cabinet. He communicates all decisions of the Cabinet to the President which is related to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
f. Head: The Prime Minister is the head of Nuclear Command Authority, NITI Aayog, Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, Department of Atomic Energy, Department of Space and Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
g. Chief Advisor: He acts as the chief advisor to the President - Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to Deputy Speaker of State Legislative Assembly, consider the following
statements:
1. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Governor.
2. She/he performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant.
3. She/he can resign by writing to the Speaker.
4. She/he can voluntarily give up the membership of the political party without being disqualified
under Anti-defection law.
Which of the statements given above are correct?CorrectAnswer: c
Speaker decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker.IncorrectAnswer: c
Speaker decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker. - Question 3 of 5
3. Question
In a State, if a group of 31 members from a total of 45 Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) of a
political party joins another political party, then which one of the following is the most likely consequence for
the defected MLAs?CorrectAnswer: D
Explanation:
• The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions with respect to the
disqualification of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures on the ground of
defection. The law provides for an exception to protect the legislators from
disqualification in case of a merger. It says that if a member goes out of his party as a
result of a merger of the party with another party, then the anti-defection law would
not apply. A merger takes place when two-thirds of the members of the party have
agreed to such a merger.
• In the above case, it can be seen that more than two-thirds of members (31 out of 45)
of the legislative party have agreed to merge with another party. Thus, they will retain
their membership as the anti-defection law will not apply to them.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.IncorrectAnswer: D
Explanation:
• The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions with respect to the
disqualification of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures on the ground of
defection. The law provides for an exception to protect the legislators from
disqualification in case of a merger. It says that if a member goes out of his party as a
result of a merger of the party with another party, then the anti-defection law would
not apply. A merger takes place when two-thirds of the members of the party have
agreed to such a merger.
• In the above case, it can be seen that more than two-thirds of members (31 out of 45)
of the legislative party have agreed to merge with another party. Thus, they will retain
their membership as the anti-defection law will not apply to them.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. - Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Which of the following are considered as “Minor Forest Produce” under the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
1. Bamboo
2. Tendu leaves
3. Honey
4. Wax
5. Medicinal plants
6. Timber
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectAnswer: D
• Under Forest Rights Act, 2006, “minor forest produce” includes all non-timber forest
produce of plant origin including bamboo, brush wood, stumps, cane, tussar,
cocoons, honey, wax, lac, tendu or leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots and
tubers.
IncorrectAnswer: D
• Under Forest Rights Act, 2006, “minor forest produce” includes all non-timber forest
produce of plant origin including bamboo, brush wood, stumps, cane, tussar,
cocoons, honey, wax, lac, tendu or leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots and
tubers.
- Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. A candidate’s nomination for election as President must be supported by at least 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders.
2. A candidate to be eligible for election as President must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. Until now, no candidate has been elected ‘unopposed’ to the office of the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
CorrectAnswer: A
• Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was the only President of India elected ‘unopposed’. It was
after the sudden death of the previous President, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in 1977. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
IncorrectAnswer: A
• Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was the only President of India elected ‘unopposed’. It was
after the sudden death of the previous President, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in 1977. So,
statement 3 is not correct.