29 September 2021 Current Affairs Quiz
Quiz-summary
0 of 5 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Information
29 September 2021 Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 5 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements related to Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India (DFCCIL). Which of them is INCORRECT:
CorrectAns: D
IncorrectAns: D
- Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India only mentions the office of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and not the Election Commissioners (EC).
2. The CEC has overriding powers while deciding upon any matter or issue.
3. Both CEC and ECs enjoy the security of tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?CorrectAnswer: D
• Article 324 of the Constitution states that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election
Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other election commissioners (ECs), if any, as the president
may from time to time fix. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Today, the Election Commission has been functioning as a multi-member body consisting of three
election commissioners.
• The CEC and the two other ECs have equal powers and receive equal salaries, allowances. (similar
to that of a judge of the Supreme Court).
• In case of difference of opinion amongst the CEC and/or two other ECs, the matter is decided by the
Commission by a majority. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The CEC is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the
same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• Other ECs, cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. Hence
statement 3 is not correctIncorrectAnswer: D
• Article 324 of the Constitution states that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election
Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other election commissioners (ECs), if any, as the president
may from time to time fix. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Today, the Election Commission has been functioning as a multi-member body consisting of three
election commissioners.
• The CEC and the two other ECs have equal powers and receive equal salaries, allowances. (similar
to that of a judge of the Supreme Court).
• In case of difference of opinion amongst the CEC and/or two other ECs, the matter is decided by the
Commission by a majority. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The CEC is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the
same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• Other ECs, cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. Hence
statement 3 is not correct - Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Which of the following statements regarding Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is\are correct?
1. It is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology
2. India and Pakistan have not signed the NPT.
Select the correct answer from the code below.CorrectAnswer: C
Both the statements are correct.Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
• The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament
• The NPT is often seen to be based on a central bargain: “the NPT non-nuclear-weapon states agree never to acquire nuclear weapons and the NPT nuclear-weapon states in exchange agree to share the benefits of peaceful nuclear technology and to pursue nuclear disarmament aimed at the ultimate elimination of their nuclear arsenals.”
• The treaty defines nuclear-weapon states as those that have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before 1 January 1967; these are the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China.
• Four other states are known or believed to possess nuclear weapons: India, Pakistan, and North Korea have openly tested and declared that they possess nuclear weapons, while Israel is deliberately ambiguous regarding its nuclear weapons status.
• The Treaty has 189 States Parties, which is the largest number of any arms control agreement.
• However, India, Israel and Pakistan have not signed the NPT.
• North Korea announced its withdrawal in 2003, and further announced that it had conducted an underground nuclear explosion in 2006 and 2009.IncorrectAnswer: C
Both the statements are correct.Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
• The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament
• The NPT is often seen to be based on a central bargain: “the NPT non-nuclear-weapon states agree never to acquire nuclear weapons and the NPT nuclear-weapon states in exchange agree to share the benefits of peaceful nuclear technology and to pursue nuclear disarmament aimed at the ultimate elimination of their nuclear arsenals.”
• The treaty defines nuclear-weapon states as those that have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before 1 January 1967; these are the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China.
• Four other states are known or believed to possess nuclear weapons: India, Pakistan, and North Korea have openly tested and declared that they possess nuclear weapons, while Israel is deliberately ambiguous regarding its nuclear weapons status.
• The Treaty has 189 States Parties, which is the largest number of any arms control agreement.
• However, India, Israel and Pakistan have not signed the NPT.
• North Korea announced its withdrawal in 2003, and further announced that it had conducted an underground nuclear explosion in 2006 and 2009. - Question 4 of 5
4. Question
National Youth Day (NYD) is observed on the occasion of
CorrectAns. A
• National Youth Day (NYD) is observed on Swami Vivekananda’s birth anniversary on January 12 every year.
The main objective of NYD is to promote rational thinking among the youth. Youth is expected to rise to the values, principles and beliefs that Vivekananda lived by.IncorrectAnswer: A
About Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme:
• The scheme was launched on May 08, 2020.
• The scheme would run for the duration of five years and envisages setting up of 6-8 Greenfield Defence Testing Infrastructure facilities that are required for defence and aerospace related production.
• The Scheme aims to promote indigenous defence production, with special focus on participation of MSMEs and Start Ups by bridging gaps in defence testing infrastructure in the country, Consequently reduce imports of military equipment and help make the country self-reliant.
• The Scheme has an outlay of Rs 400 crore for creating state of the art testing infrastructure over the duration of five years.
• The projects under the Scheme will be provided with up to 75% government funding in the form of ‘Grant-in-Aid’.
• The remaining 25% of the project cost will have to be borne by the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) whose constituents will be Indian private entities and State Governments.
• Only private entities registered in India and State Government agencies will qualify for forming the implementation agency for the Scheme.
• The SPVs under the Scheme will be registered under Companies Act 201
• While majority of test facilities are expected to come up in the two Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs), the Scheme is not limited to setting up Test Facilities in the DICs only. - Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Which of the following statements about National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) are correct?
1. The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is an Indian specialized force constituted for the purpose of special response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster under the Disaster Management Act, 2010.
2. The Chairman of the NDMA is the home minister
3. The responsibility of managing disasters in India is that of the central Government.CorrectAns;- d) None of the above
About NDRF
• The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is an Indian specialized force constituted for the purpose of special response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster” under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• The “Apex Body for Disaster Management”[citation needed] in India is the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
• The Chairman of the NDMA is the Prime Minister.
• The responsibility of managing disasters in India is that of the State Government. The ‘Nodal Ministry’ in the central government for management of natural disasters is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• When ‘calamities of severe nature’ occur, the Central Government is responsible for providing aid and assistance to the affected state, including deploying, at the State’s request, of Armed Forces, Central Paramilitary Forces, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), and such communication, air and other assets, as are available and needed. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is under the National Disaster Management Authority.
• The head of the NDRF is designated as Director General. The Director Generals of NDRF are IPS officers on deputation from Indian police organisations.
• Director General wears the uniform and badges of rank of an army three-star general.
• The NDRF is a top-heavy organisation which in addition to the Director General has several Inspector Generals (IG) and Deputy IGs, who fly flags and wear army-style badges of rank.IncorrectAns. D
• The Brus are spread across Tripura, Mizoram and parts of southern Assam are the most populous tribe in Tripura.
• Also known as Reangs in the state, they are ethnically different from the Mizos, with their own distinct language and dialect and form one of the 21 scheduled tribes of Tripura. In Mizoram, they are largely restricted to Mamit and Kolasib districts.
• Over two decades ago, they were targeted by the Young Mizo Association (YMA), Mizo Zirwlai Pawl (MZP), and a few ethnic social organisations of Mizoram who demanded that the Bru be excluded from electoral rolls in the state.
